Also it’s often misunderstood to refer to the act of recording itself, when it only relates to permissibility as evidence in court. People can record phone calls wherever. It’s only the usefulness of the recording in court that changes.
Interesting question: what if the call crosses from a two party area to a one party area?
If the call goes from Georgia (one party) to Florida (two party) can the Georgia caller legally record without the Floridian’s consent?
Can the Georgia caller then use the legally obtained recording in a Florida courtroom? In a Georgia courtroom? On national news? If both parties are Florida residents but one party drives into Georgia for the duration of the call?
Interesting question: what if the call crosses from a two party area to a one party area?
The party in the two-party area needs to get consent from the other, but the party in the one-party area doesn’t.
Anybody who tells you the party in the one-party-consent area needs to get consent because the call crosses jurisdictional boundaries is a totalitarian piece of shit who believes in extraterritorial jurisdiction.
They is why there is the concepts of one party and two party call recording consent.
If you are in a one party area, you absolutely can record the call without telling them.
Not entirely sure how it works with 2 party areas if both parties want to record the call. I am not fro a two party area.
Also it’s often misunderstood to refer to the act of recording itself, when it only relates to permissibility as evidence in court. People can record phone calls wherever. It’s only the usefulness of the recording in court that changes.
It also comes into play for civil damages if the recording is published.
Interesting question: what if the call crosses from a two party area to a one party area?
If the call goes from Georgia (one party) to Florida (two party) can the Georgia caller legally record without the Floridian’s consent?
Can the Georgia caller then use the legally obtained recording in a Florida courtroom? In a Georgia courtroom? On national news? If both parties are Florida residents but one party drives into Georgia for the duration of the call?
The party in the two-party area needs to get consent from the other, but the party in the one-party area doesn’t.
Anybody who tells you the party in the one-party-consent area needs to get consent because the call crosses jurisdictional boundaries is a totalitarian piece of shit who believes in extraterritorial jurisdiction.